ive had a lumbar mri which, to quite the letter from the neurologist to my gp states
“…was investigated with a lumbosacral spine MEI (non contrast). There is a relatively discreet intramedullary t2 weighted high signal lying anterior within the cord. The findings raise the possibility of demyelination/inflammation”
Merely opinions sought as to whether realistically is this likely to equate to ms as I’ve been told to prepare for that as a diagnosis. I’ve searched as best I can and it seems unlikely there’s another realistic cause. Only definitive symptom is numbness to one foot and a change in sensation in one leg. All other parts of the examination passed without issue.
just looking for some real world thoughts and opinions as i’m Busy persuading myself from one extreme to the other ie wheelchair in 6 months and merely a ‘sporting injury’.
Not looking to cast doubt in the neurologist opinion merely trying to get my head straight.
any thoughts welcome