I read on the MS website:
“Low risk of developing MS: When CIS is not accompanied by MRI-detected brain lesions, the person has about a 20 percent chance of developing MS over the same period of time”.
How can that be?
What if the neurological symptoms were caused by an infection or another disorder that is not linked to MS (e.g. vitamin d/b12 deficiency)?
I was tested with brain and spine MRIs, as well as with two evoked potential tests (i.e. all tests were normal), and was told that it is really unlikely to be MS-related (i.e. in my case a viral infection was suspected, even if nothing confirmed that), and now I see that in fact I could well be in that 20 percent category? The way I previously understood it was that no MRIs evidences potentially put you in the box of the 5% percent of people with MS that don’t have lesions, but not in the 20% box of people who may subsequently develop MS…
Also, the MS society defines a CIS as monofocal or multifocal (i.e. one or more lesion present on MRI scan), so how can someone who present neurological symptoms without MRI evidences be put in the category of CIS?
Any clarifications or insights would really be welcomed!