Hello lovely people,
Can anyone help with the diagnostic criteria?
I have the following:
Positive lumbar puncture for oligoclonal bands, positive VEP, three clinical relapses and bladder damage.
However, clear MRI.
I’ve looked at the McDonald criteria and I’m getting the impression that a diagnosis can be made without mri still.
Is this right? They literally have all the evidence of dissemination in time, relapses and lab results. Everything else and I mean everything else has been ruled out. Are they able to diagnose now?
Thanks in advance.