Hi everyone, grateful for any expertise or advice please.
My basic question is: what does it mean if a lesion is definitely new within the last month (I had a repeat mri) yet isn’t showing up with contrast (which I read shows active inflammation in past three months)?
Does that mean it’s a degenerative PPMS lesion?
Is there any other explanation? Does contrast not always show up? Can a recent course of steroids affect how the gadolinium works?
Thank you
Longer version / context:
I’ve been having investigations for MS after onset of foot drop in late March, having already had subtle bladder and eyesight issues for several months before that.
First scan in early May was without contrast as folks doing it didn’t notice the relatively small number of lesions - mostly in my spinal cord - only picked up by radiologist after.
I then had lumbar puncture and intravenous steroids, which didn’t work, then massive course of steroid pills which also didn’t help my symptoms.
LP confirmed oligoclonal bands in CSF and also in serum. Referred to a second consultant more specialist in MS/neuroinflammatory conditions.
Symptoms getting worse and onset of Lhermitte’s sign but repeat MRI after one month showed no change and no active inflammation showing up with contrast.
Visual evoked potentials confirmed damaged to right optic nerve.
Consultant in two minds whether unusual presentation of opticospinal MS (due to only one lesion in brain) or NMOSD (despite negative antibody tests so would be double seronegative, super rare).
Meanwhile my main symptoms been getting worse. Consultant says no point trying any other treatments like Plex unless any active inflammation. So had a repeat MRI last week. Shows new lesions in brain (which I guess makes NMOSD less likely) but none showing up with contrast.
My consultant originally suggested me having been on a big dose of steroids could have explained lack of contrast showing up in the previous scan, but the whole purpose of this latest scan was to check for active inflammation so I assume he thought contrast would work now I’ve finished steroids, even if the effects linger. He’s away til the end of the month tho.
Both consultants I’ve seen so far have assured me it’s not PPMS as onset of PPMS usually much slower. I’m just scared that the fact I’m getting worse despite steroids and despite apparent lack of inflammation (and I’ve got the bands in serum as well as CSF) all points to PPMS, and maybe just an unusually rapid deterioration. Which is a very scary thought and I really want to be wrong.
Thanks again x