Having been officially diagnosed with RRMS 6 years ago, but had symptoms for at least a decade before that, I feel I ought to have this straight in my head by now… but I am still confused.
Can a person still be experiencing symptoms even if an MRI shows no changes in lesions?
I get the impression from my Neurologist & MS Nurse that because nothing has obviously changed on my scan since the previous one, then I can’t be feeling any worse or experiencing symptoms. Honestly, they make me feel as though I’m either imagining it or making it up…! Yet when I didn’t initially believe the diagnosis, it was the Neuro who was insistent that the dx of RRMS was correct.
He has never offered me any treatment, preferring a wait and see approach; something which I feel led to my vision problems becoming worse than they might otherwise have been had I been started on something right from the beginning. However, the damage is done and it is too late now to restore my vision to what it was.
I wasn’t able to attend my last Neuro appointment and I emailed to let them know, however the message wasn’t passed onto the Neurologist and I received a rather shirty letter from him about non-attendance. I responded to both him and my GP that I did indeed let the hospital know and even included a screenshot of the email I’d sent, but have never received an acknowledgement nor another folow-up appointment. It feels as though because my last scan didn’t show any changes, he doesn’t think there’s anything wrong, he can just forget about me until another year has gone by.
I realise I should be proactive and chase them up about an appointment, but honestly I don’t need anyone making me feel more crap about myself than I already do, so I’ve been putting it off.
Not sure where I was going with this, just needed to get it out of my system.