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Define "relapse"....

I presented with optic neuritis and l’hermittes sign 6-7 weeks ago. Mri found lesions and I’m awaiting a neuro appointment (23 December, how thoughtful!)

lhermittes and left flank burning had given way and is gone but I now have sensitive skin on a very specific part of my left tummy and back and Achilles / heel / ankle pain.

My question: what is a relapse? A new symptom persisting over 24 hours - yes. But when you get rid of one and immediately get another, is it probably the same lesion doing more damage or do you think it’s altogether new and just coincidentally close to the first / previous symptoms?

my biggest fear was, and to some extent continues to be, that I will progressively get worse, but the fact that some symptoms vanish has made me more confident that perhaps they are related but not progressively getting worse.

Unofficially, I’ve been given rrms as a diagnosis but they’re leaving it to neuro to confirm.

is this typical ?

hiya

have read ur post several times trying to decide on an answer!

the truth is (my truth i mean) is that even professionals cant agree what defines a relapse (i have been on her 8/9 years and have seen all sorts)

somebody else will be able to discuss drugs/medication with you but from my experience keeping your mind strong even tho body failing is best suggestion i can offer to help you through this malarkey.

ellie

As I understand it, according to the clinical definition, there has to be a gap of at least 30 days between relapses, so new symptoms arising within 30 days of the last lost resolving would be deemed still part of the same relapse, not the beginning of a new one.

So it’s down to when did the first lot of symptoms resolve, rather than when did they start. If it’s been less than 30 days since things clamed down, it would almost certainly be treated as the same relapse still festering, rather than the start of another.

Tina