HI ALL, this is my first post. My background: I had Optic Neuritis diagnosed last month. My doc sent me for an MRI since I have had Iritis in the past, and some weakeness in arm (which I always attributed to ergonomics)
The first set of brain results showed “non specific” foci … I could post those results, but I have a newer image since then. I went to the Yale Division of MS and Immunology (Connecticut, in US) and the neuro ordered MRIs of my brain, T-Spine and C-Spine and also a Spinal Tap. She said my symptoms have been “muddy”, so she wants to see everything she can.
The MRI was last week, and the Spinal Tap was this morning. I have a follow-up appt in 2 weeks, but have the MRI report and am wondering about it, naturally. Here it is:
Small, scattered nonspecific subcortical foci of increased T2 and FLAIR signal are noted in the cerebral white matter as detailed above. No acute brain pathology, or lesion enhancement.
No evidence of demyeliniating disease or pathology within the cervical spinal cord. There is minor disc bulging at C5-C6, no significant spinal or foraminal stenosis.
At the T3-4 level, there is a small disc osteophyte complex with indents the spinal cord, small focus of increased T2 signal within the central, ventral aspect of the cord is noted at this point. This could reflect focal myelopathic signal change secondary to the disc osteophyte complex.
At the T2/3 level, there is potential small focus of increased T2 signal in the right dorsal superficial lateral cord. Additionally, at the mid T6 level, there is high T2 signal within the cord without evidence of external compression. There is no pathologic enhancement of the thoracic spinal cord, lepomeninges or vertebrae. These findings are concerning for demyelinating disease/MS.
I see words like “small” and “possible” which aren’t too worrisome. Without knowing how to interpret all of this directly, the last paragraph was worrisome – the “high T2 signal within the cord” … so does that mean lesions on my spinal cord? … and “without evidence of external compression” … that sounds good, but is it? …
The last sentence “These findings are concerning for demuelinating disease/MS” is worrisome, of course … but I am not sure of what it refers to.
I like to learn as much as I can, but do trust my doc to give me the big picture when I see her in 2 weeks … any interpretation you have before then would help me organize my thoughts about all this. Also — if she does not diagnose MS, is there anything else that should be considered? For example, I know the spinal fluid will also be tested for Lyme … what else should be on my radar?