I will be brief re the context of my question but I was diagnosed at the start of April due to the upper left half of my body going numb, that is head, neck, ear, shoulder arm, to about hip. I also had some l’hermiettes sign at that time, which I had had a year earlier but thought was a pinched nerve, and I also had muscle spasms, but I had also had those before. I was not treated for that but if got better. Then a about 6-8 weeks later i woke up any my shins to feet were numb, not the skin but the inside. I didn’t do anything but in 3 days it had risen to be numb from chest down, then on the right side the muscles sort of constricted. I could still walk, it was just an odd feeling and when the muscles sort of tightened I was more worried. So I went to the hospital. They gave me 4 days of IV methyl pred, then a course of dexmethsone which was over 3 weeks and started at 32mg, which was 3 x 4mg pills in the morning then midday and then at night. The whole dosage was to be 120 x 4mg pills. I was given the script at the hospital, and a written schedule, and sent on my way. I struggled a lot on the pills, I wasn’t given any information about them and no- one monitored me taking them. Life has been hell at times. And now I have just stopped taking them and it’s a brand new type of hell quite frankly. There are a lot of other contextual factors, regarding the care provided to me by my neurologist but I just want to know for now, would this be a standard dosage that would be administered?
Yes that’s what someone else had said. Would you also have the methyl pred IV for 4 days before that?
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Yes that’s what I thought, I spoke to someone who had a similar dosage. Would you also be given 4 days of methyl pred via IV before that?